Q 1 - What is the implication of having a direct link between a defect and a test?

A The defect is directly linked to the related Test Run

B The defect is indirectly linked to the related Requirement.

C The defect is indirectly linked to the related Test Set.

D The defect is directly linked to the related Test Instance.

Q 2 - What are the potential subsequent states of a "Fixed" defect? (Select two.)

1. Closed

2. Reopened

3. Complete

4. New

5. Reviewed

A - (1) and (2) only

B - (2) and (3) Only

C - (1) (2) and (4) Only

D - All the Above

Q 3 - By default, what does HP Application Lifecycle Management assign when a new defect is created? (select 2)

1. A unique defect ID.

2. The status Created

3. A version number

4. The status New

5. A unique test set

A - (1) only (4) only

B - (2) and (3) Only

C - (2) (4) and (5) Only

D - (1) (2) and (4) only

Q 4 - Which options can be used to submit defects from HP Sprinter to HP Application Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)

1. Smart Identification

2. Defect Checking

3. Smart Defects

4. Smart Defects Identification

5. Defect Reminder

A - (1) and (3) only

B - (2) and (4) Only

C - (1) (2) and (3) Only

D - (3) and (5) only

Q 5 - Which annotation tools can be used to detect a defect during an HP Sprinter test run? (Select two.)

1. Ruler tool

2. Step tool

3. Click tool

4. Guides tool

5. Align tool

A - (1) and (4) only

B - (2) and (3) Only

C - (2) and (4) Only

D - (3) and (5) only

Q 6 - Which tool can be used to store information about a defect in HP Sprinter without disrupting test flow?

A - Defect Highlighter tool

B - Test Defect tool

C - Smart Defect tool

D - Defect Reminder tool

Q 7 - Which entities can be linked to a defect? (Select two.)

1. Cycles

2. Releases

3. Reports

4. Defects

5. Tests

A - (4) and (5) only

B - (2) and (5) Only

C - (1) and (2) Only

D - (3) and (4) only

Q 8 - A tester reports that when running a test, HP Sprinter is preventing him from attaching a movie of the test run to the defect he is submitting. How can this problem be resolved?

A - By the user adjusting options in his HP Sprinter user interface

B - By the user re-establishing his HP Application LIfecycle Management connection

C - By the project administrator enabling the aIlow attaching movies to defects option on the Customization → HP Sprinter pageby the project administrator enabling the ?flow attaching movies to defects? option on the Customization → HP Sprinter page

D - By the project administrator enabling the aIlow attaching movies to defects option for the appropriate user group on the Customization → by the project administrator enabling the? flow attaching movies to defects?option for the appropriate user group on the Customization → Groups and Permissions → Defects page

Q 9 - What is HP Sprinter?

A - An automated test environment for exploratory testers

B - A manual test environment for exploratory testers

C - A manual test execution environment

D - A manual test development environment

Q 10 - What does Risk-Based Quality Management enable you to do?

A - Determine which requirements to add to the application

B - Calculate the number of tests to be built per requirement

C - Calculate the level at which each requirement should be tested

D - Calculate the level at which each requirement should be tested

Q 11 - How are related projects grouped?

A - By test set

B - By package

C - By domain

D - By class

Q 12 - What happens when an HP Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) project administrator saves a customization change as a Major Change rather than a Minor Change?

A - The customization is added to the parent project template.

B - The user must log out and log back in to load the change.

C - The customization loads when the user reconnects after a session timeout.

D - The customization loads when the user changes screens in ALM.

Q 13 - A testing team wants to add a new field named "Approver" to the Test Details form that becomes mandatory whenever test status changes to "Ready".

After adding the new field, how should the project administrator customize its behavior to meet this requirement?

A - By modifying the code of the appropriate event function in Customization > Workflow > Script Editor

B - By setting configuration options for the new field via Customization > Project Entities > Test > User Fields

C - By setting configuration options for the new field via Customization > Workflow > Script Generator-Test Details Field Customization

D - By creating a custom event function in Customization > Workflow > Script Editor

Q 14 - What does the pie chart in the Coverage Analysis window display?

A - Only the number of passed tests regarding the current cycle

B - The full test coverage for the test set, grouped according to test status

C - Only the number of passed tests regarding the current requirement

D - The full test coverage for the requirement, grouped according to test status

Q 15 - The Automail customization feature applies to which modules?

A - All licensed modules

B - Only Test Lab and Defects

C - Only Defects

D - Only Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, and Defects

Q 16 - Which entities support version control? (Select three.)

1. Cycles

2. Test steps

3. Tests

4. Defects

5. Requirements

6. Test resources

A - (1) (2) and (3) only

B - (2) (3) and (4) Only

C - (2) (4) and (5) Only

D - (3) (5) and (6) only

Q 17 - What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline?

A - Test Set

B - Requirement

C - Test Plan

D - Cycle

Q 18 - When synchronizing libraries, an entity is modified in the source and the target libraries. How is the entity in the target library updated?

A - The entity in the source library is overwritten.

B - A report is generated and changes are suspended.

C - The entity in the target library is overwritten.

D - Changes are merged in both libraries.

Q 19 - Which tabs are available in the right pane of the Requirements Details view? (Select two.).

1. Requirements Traceability

2. Test Coverage

3. Requirements Coverage

4. Test Plan Description

5. Linked Test Unit

A - (1) and (2) only

B - (2) and (4) Only

C - (3) and (5) Only

D - (3) and (4) only

Q 20 - What can be specified when using the Execution Flow tab of the Test Lab module? (Select three.)

1. The parameters for a test set instance execution

2. The condition for executing a test instance

3. The test step executed in a test instance

4. The requirements for executing a test instance

5. The date of a test instance execution

6. The time of a test instance execution

A - (2) (5) and (6) only

B - (1) (2) and (3) Only

C - (1) and(3) Only

D - All (1) (2) (3) and (4)

Q 21 - What is true in a Not Completed requirement coverage status?

A - Almost one test has an execution status of Failed.

B - None of the tests have an execution status of Blocked.

C - None of the tests can have execution status of Passed.

D - None of the tests can have execution status of No Run.

Q 22 - When defining content for a Library, which entities can be added based on their relationship to the requirements selected?

A - Only Tests

B - Tests and Test Sets

C - Tests and Components

D - Tests and Test Resources

Q 23 - Which customization use cases can only be accommodated by editing workflow code ?

A - Sending an email to a test's owner whenever a linked requirement is updated.

B - Permitting developers to see only the defects submitted by their team

C - Adding a new status called "Pending Review" to the Test Status system field

D - Denying access to the Releases module for certain groups of users

Q 24 - All licenses for a specific HP Lifecycle Management (ALM) module are currently in use and an additional user tries to access that module. Which statement is true about what happens in this situation?

A - ALM uses a concurrency model. The user will be declined access and receive a message indicating such.

B - ALM uses a fixed seat model. What happens depends on whether or not the user is accessing ALM from a computer that has been registered as licensed.

C - ALM allows the user read-only access. Once a license is released, the user will be informed that write privileges have been granted.

D - ALM allows timesharing-based access. All users can access with write privileges for a fixed time.

Q 25 - The ALM Synchronizer is a service that provides out-of-the box integration with which tools? (Select three.)

1. Tasktop

2. Rational CIearQuest

3. Microsoft Project

4. CollabNet TeamForge

5. Rational RegPro

6. Defects between two ALM Projects

A - (1) (2) and (3) only

B - (2) (5) and (6) Only

C - (3) (4) and (5) Only

D - (1) (2) and (4)

Q 26 - In which fields of the Design Steps tab is it possible to use parameters? (Select two.)

1. Step Name

2. Expected Result

3. Parameters

4. Test Configurations

5. Description

A - (2) and (5) only

B - (1) and (4) Only

C - (3) and (5) Only

D - (2) and (3)

Q 27 - Which HP Application Lifecycle Management command enables you to convert a Manual test to an Automated test type?

A - Convert Script

B - Create Script

C - Generate Script

D - Generate Script from manual test

Q 28 - Which icon indicates a checked out entity?

A - A red lock

B - A green exclamation mark

C - A green lock

D - A Yellow exclamation mark

Q 29 - A team wants to set up field searching in an HP Application Lifecycle Management project. What should they know to accomplish this?

A - All system fields are searchable, which may impact search times.

B - Only user fields of type memo or string are searchable.

C - By default, all eligible fields are set to searchable.

D - The searchable option is only available for the Test and Defects modules.

Q 30 - In HP Sprinter, what comprises the Tests list?

A - Tests that are currently under development in HP Sprinter

B - Tests that may be included in the tester's next run

C - The list of tests comprising the currently opened test set

D - Tests that have been activated for HP Sprinter execution

Q 31 - How does the ALM Synchronizer operate?

A - Through data mapping that occurs directly between databases

B - Through synchronization links that are established between end points

C - Through scheduled API calls

D - Through chronjobs doing command line calls to the backend

Q 32 - Which feature determines the good, bad, or warning level for a KPI

A - Milestone

B - Scope item

C - Threshold

D - KPI type

Q 33 - Which entities must be defined for Project Planning and Tracking?

A - Only Release and KPIs

B - Only Milestones, KPIs, and Scope Items

C - Release, Milestones, KPIs, and Requirements

D - Release, Milestones, KPIs, and Scope Items

Q 34 - What are solutions for running manual tests?

A - HP QuickTest Professional, Manual Runner

B - Manual Runner, HP Sprinter

C - HP LoadRunner, HP Sprinter

D - HP QuickTest Professional,HP Sprinter

Q 35 - When should tests be automated? (Select two.)

1. When tests are executed only once

2. When tests check a multi-user client/server system

3. When tests require immediate execution

4. When tests check how easy the application is to use

5. When tests check the stability of application basic functionality

A - (1) and (3) only

B - (2) and (5) Only

C - (2) and (4) Only

D - (4) and (5) only

Q 36 - What are execution statuses of a test instance? (Select two.)

1. OK

2. Completed

3. Not Completed

4. Blocked

5. Suspended

A - (1) and (3) only

B - (3) and (4) Only

C - (2) and (4) Only

D - (3) and (5) only

Q 37 - How would you leverage test configurations to cover multiple requirements and avoid unneeded duplications?

A - By associating different test configurations in multiple tests with each requirement

B - By associating different test configurations in the same test with each requirement

C - By associating the same test configuration in the same test with each requirement

D - By associating the same test configuration in multiple tests with each requirement

Q 38 - As the project administrator of a project that is linked to a template project, what can you do?

A - Synchronize project customizations with the linked template project on demand

B - Roll back project customizations if problems are detected

C - Request suspension of template customizations being applied

D - Run verification prior to synchronization with the template project

Q 39 - Which type of data can be added to a Dashboard page?

A - Releases

B - Requirements

C - Reports

D - Graphs

Q 40 - What are supported test types out-of-the-box? (Select three.)

1. LOAD-TEST

2. CAPACITY-TEST

3. BLACK-BOX-TEST

4. LR-SCENARIO

5. QUICKTEST TEST

6. MANUAL

A - (1) (2) and (3) only

B - (4) (5) and (6) Only

C - (1) (3) and (4) Only

D - (2) (4) and (6)